Today we have a 13-year-old female neutered Border Collie with paraparesis. Take a look at the case and post your comments!
Teaching and learning about veterinary diagnostic imaging.
Today we have a 13-year-old female neutered Border Collie with paraparesis. Take a look at the case and post your comments!
There is marked osteolysis of the spinous process of T1. There is also mild irregular periosteal proliferation associated with the spinous process of T1 and osteolysis of the lamina and right pedicle of the vertebra. Thee is a pathologic fracture of the spinous process of T1. The dorsal aspect of T2 spinous process is also lytic. The right caudal pedicle of C7 is indistinct. There are multiple sites of spondylosis deformans with smoothly marginated osseous proliferation and sclerosis of the end plates at L1-2 and L2-3. An alveolar pattern is present in the right lung lobe with shift of the mediastinum to the right compatible with atelectasis secondary to anesthesia and right lateral recumbency.
Progressive, primarily destructive lesion of T1 and T2 with possible involvement of C7 compatible with neoplasia. Differential diagnoses include soft tissue neoplasia invading bone, primary bone or round cell neoplasia, or metastatic neoplasia.
Myeloma.
Bloodwork revealed hyperglobulinemia. This along with the cytologic diagnosis of plasma cells, and vertebral location of the mass, is consistent with myeloma.
Wouldn’t paraparesis typically localise the lesion to caudal to T3? Would have expected the T1 lesion to have had forelimb deficits? Apart from the T1 lesion there are narrowed disc spaces at L1-2 and L2-3. Out of interest is there a myelogram? Thanks.
Normally yes however this dog didn’t read the book! There were no thoracic limb deficits. The MRI confirmed an extensive compressive lesion at T1.
What about other spinous process such as L5? Is it irregular in margine with geographic lytic pattern?
How should we explain the sclerosis of the intervertebral foramen between L2-L3?
If the patient shows signs of paraparesis why should we focused on cranial thoracic vertebrae instead of caudal parts?
Although MRI confirmed an extensive compressive lesion at T1, what about MR changes on lumbar vertebrae?
Yes L5 was involved as well, but the only compression was at the largest lesion site at T1. There was additional degenerative change of the intervertebral disks.